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In endometriosis :
👉 If cause vaginal bleeding it will be premenstrual spotting or intermenstrual spots ( Not menorrhagia nor oligomenorrhea , Amenorrhea )
👉↑risk of ovarian cancer ( Endometrioid & clear cell )
👉 Uterus soft + Tender → Think in pregnancy then Adenomyosis and other causes so order pregnancy test first.
◻️Adenomyosis= symmetrical enlarged uterus
•Mainly clinical dx
•Sun ray appearance on ultrasound
•multipara ,40s , soft and tender uterus ( halban's sign)
•Rx progesterone therapy ( mirena or pills)
◻️ Fibroid = asymmetrical enlarged uterus or Markedly enlarged uterus
•At any age Rx of submucos fibroid is hysteroscopic myomectomy
◻️Pregnancy and its complications are not included in AUB classification
◻️Halban's
Sign = adenomyosis
Disease = irregular shedding
Theory= endometriosis
◻️Symmetrical enlarged uterus= adenomyosis and pregnancy, Metropathia hemorrhagica, submucous fibroid
◽Oligomenorrhea= problem in the ovulation (PCO) , risk of endometrial hyperplasia
◽Polymenorrhea= high FSH ⏩ early retirement ⏩short follicular phase , Met in perimenopausal women (Normal physiological pattern)
◻️ Metrorrhagia = Intermenstrual bleeding= think mainly about surface lesion like cervical polyp or breakthrough bleeding
◻️Menorrhagia and menostaxis = heavy menstrual bleeding ( excessive bleeding in the regular cycles)
Causes : IUD copper, submucos and interstitious fibroid
An asymptomatic 52-year-old man is undergoing screening sigmoidoscopy. In the rectum, at 6 cm from the anal verge, a 2 cm yellow, submucosal nodule is noted. Deep endoscopic biopsies are consistent with carcinoid. Appropriate management includes which of the following?
a. Observation
b. Transanal excision
c. Low anterior resection
d. Abdominoperineal resection
Answer: bbbb
Q9) Vimal, a 70-years old male presents with a history of lower
GI bleed for last 6 months. Sigmoido-scopic examination
shows a mass, of 4 cm about 3.5 cm above the anal verge. The
treatment of choice is:
Complications of Multiple small stones in GB ?
Obstructive jaundice
Pancreatitis
Ascending cholangitis
Gallstone ileus
25-year-old woman with known ulcerative colitis presents to the emergency room with a 24-hour history of abdominal pain, distention, and obstipation. Physical examination reveals a temperature of 38.6° C, abdominal distention, and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Abdominal x-rays show marked colonic dilatation, most pronounced in the transverse colon. Laboratory examination reveals a white blood count of 19,000/mm3. Over the first 24 hours of hospitalization, symptoms are progressive in spite of intravenous fluid resuscitation, nasogastric suctioning, and intravenous antibiotics. The most appropriate management for this patient would include which of the following?
a. Decompressive colonoscopy
b. Proctocolectomy with formation of end ileostomy
c. Total abdominal colectomy with formation of Hartmann pouch and end ileostomy
d. Cecostomy
Answer: ?c
Official Telegram Channel by Sarkari Result SarkariResult.Com
Welcome to this official Channel of Sarkari Result SarkariResult.Com - On this page you will get all the updated information on Sarkari Result website from time to time.
Last updated 1 month ago
?Only Current Affairs English & Hindi Medium.
Contact @GKGSAdminBot
Channel Link- https://t.me/+wytqxfcVInNjN2E1
By Chandan Kr Sah
Email- [email protected]
Must Subscribe Us On YouTube - https://youtube.com/channel/UCuxj11YwYKYRJSgtfYJbKiw
Last updated 1 year, 8 months ago
✆ Contact 👉 @Aarav723
#UPSC, #SSC , #CGL #BPSC #STATE #PET #Banking, #Railway, #Mppsc, #RRB, #IBPS, #Defence, #Police, #RBI etc.
🇮🇳This Channel Has Been Established With The Aim Of Providing Proper Guidance To Youths Preparing For All Govt Exam
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